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Product Description:
Exam Number/Code: CISA
Exam name: Isaca CISA
n questions with full explanations
Certification: Isaca Certification
Last updated on Global synchronizing

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Q271. - (Topic 3) 

Which of the following should an IS auditor recommend to BEST enforce alignment of an IT project portfolio with strategic organizational priorities? 

A. Define a balanced scorecard (BSC) for measuring performance 

B. Consider user satisfaction in the key performance indicators (KPIs) 

C. Select projects according to business benefits and risks 

D. Modify the yearly process of defining the project portfolio 



Prioritization of projects on the basis of their expected benefit(s) to business, and the related risks, is the best measure for achieving alignment of the project portfolio to an organization's strategic priorities. Modifying the yearly process of the projects portfolio definition might improve the situation, but only if the portfolio definition process is currently not tied to the definition of corporate strategies; however, this is unlikely since the difficulties are in maintaining the alignment, and not in setting it up initially. Measures such as balanced scorecard (BSC) and key performance indicators (KPIs) are helpful, but they do not guarantee that the projects are aligned with business strategy. 

Q272. - (Topic 1) 

After identifying potential security vulnerabilities, what should be the IS auditor's next step? 

A. To evaluate potential countermeasures and compensatory controls 

B. To implement effective countermeasures and compensatory controls 

C. To perform a business impact analysis of the threats that would exploit the vulnerabilities 

D. To immediately advise senior management of the findings 


Explanation: After identifying potential security vulnerabilities, the IS auditor's next step is to perform a business impact analysis of the threats that would exploit the vulnerabilities. 

Q273. - (Topic 2) 

Data flow diagrams are used by IS auditors to: 

A. order data hierarchically. 

B. highlight high-level data definitions. 

C. graphically summarize data paths and storage. 

D. portray step-by-step details of data generation. 



Data flow diagrams are used as aids to graph or chart data flow and storage. They trace the data from its origination to destination, highlighting the paths and storage of datA. They do not order data in any hierarchy. The flow of the data will not necessarily match any hierarchy or data generation order. 

Q274. - (Topic 3) 

While conducting an audit of a service provider, an IS auditor observes that the service provider has outsourced a part of the work to another provider. Since the work involves confidential information, the IS auditor's PRIMARY concern shouldbe that the: 

A. requirement for protecting confidentiality of information could be compromised. 

B. contract may be terminated because prior permission from the outsourcer was not obtained. 

C. other service provider to whom work has been outsourced is not subject to audit. 

D. outsourcer will approach the other service provider directly for further work. 



Many countries have enacted regulations to protect the confidentiality of information maintained in their countries and/or exchanged with other countries. Where a service provider outsources part of its services to another service provider, there is a potential risk that the confidentiality of the information will be compromised. Choices B and C could be concerns but are not related to ensuring the confidentiality of information. There is no reason why an IS auditor should be concerned with choice D. 

Q275. - (Topic 1) 

Run-to-run totals can verify data through which stage(s) of application processing? 

A. Initial 

B. Various 

C. Final 

D. Output 


Explanation: Run-to-run totals can verify data through various stages of application processing. 

Q276. - (Topic 1) 

Which of the following is the most fundamental step in preventing virus attacks? 

A. Adopting and communicating a comprehensive antivirus policy 

B. Implementing antivirus protection software on users' desktop computers 

C. Implementing antivirus content checking at all network-to-Internet gateways 

D. Inoculating systems with antivirus code 


Explanation: Adopting and communicating a comprehensive antivirus policy is the most fundamental step in preventing virus attacks. All other antivirus prevention efforts rely upon decisions established and communicated via policy. 

Q277. - (Topic 1) 

An off-site processing facility should be easily identifiable externally because easy identification helps ensure smoother recovery. True or false? 

A. True 

B. False 


Explanation: An off-site processing facility should not be easily identifiable externally because easy identification would create an additional vulnerability for sabotage. 

Q278. - (Topic 1) 

Which of the following is of greatest concern when performing an IS audit? 

A. Users' ability to directly modify the database 

B. Users' ability to submit queries to the database 

C. Users' ability to indirectly modify the database 

D. Users' ability to directly view the database 


Explanation: A major IS audit concern is users' ability to directly modify the database. 

Q279. - (Topic 4) 

An IS auditor invited to a development project meeting notes that no project risks have been documented. When the IS auditor raises this issue, the project manager responds that it is too early to identify risks and that, if risks do start impactingthe project, a risk manager will be hired. The appropriate response of the IS auditor would be to: 

A. stress the importance of spending time at this point in the project to consider and document risks, and to develop contingency plans. 

B. accept the project manager's position as the project manager is accountable for the outcome of the project. 

C. offer to work with the risk manager when one is appointed. 

D. inform the project manager that the IS auditor will conduct a review of the risks at the completion of the requirements definition phase of the project. 



The majority of project risks can typically be identified before a project begins, allowing mitigation/avoidance plans to be put in place to deal with these risks. A project should have a clear link back to corporate strategy and tactical plans to support this strategy. The process of setting corporate strategy, setting objectives and developing tactical plans should include the consideration of risks. Appointing a risk manager is a good practice but waiting until the project has been impacted by risks is misguided. Risk management needs to be forward looking; allowing risks to evolve into issues that adversely impact the project represents a failure of risk management. With or without a risk manager, persons within and outside of the project team need to be consulted and encouraged to comment when they believe new risks have emerged or risk priorities have changed. The IS auditor has an obligation to the project sponsor and the organization to advise on appropriate project manage me ntpractices. Waiting for the possible appointment of a risk manager represents an unnecessary and dangerous delay to implementing risk management. 

Q280. - (Topic 3) 

An IS auditor finds that, in accordance with IS policy, IDs of terminated users are deactivated within 90 days of termination. The IS auditor should: 

A. report that the control is operating effectively since deactivation happens within the time frame stated in the IS policy. 

B. verify that user access rights have been granted on a need-to-have basis. 

C. recommend changes to the IS policy to ensure deactivation of user IDs upon termination. 

D. recommend that activity logs of terminated users be reviewed on a regular basis. 



Although a policy provides a reference for performing IS audit assignments, an IS auditor needs to review the adequacy and the appropriateness of the policy. If, in the opinion of the auditor, the time frame defined for deactivation is inappropriate,the auditor needs to communicate this to management and recommend changes to the policy. Though the deactivation happens as stated in the policy, it cannot be concluded that the control is effective. Best practice would require that the ID of a terminated user be deactivated immediately. Verifying that user access rights have been granted on a need-to-have basis is necessary when permissions are granted. Recommending that activity logs of terminated users be reviewed on a regular basis is a good practice, but not as effective as deactivation upon termination.