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Exam Number/Code: 350-080
Exam name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam
n questions with full explanations
Certification: Cisco Certification
Last updated on Global synchronizing
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2016 May 350-080 Study Guide Questions:
Q71. In a FabricPath topology, each device is identified by a switch ID, and all Layer 2 forwarding tables are built based on the reachability of the switch ID. Which protocol is used to assign the switch ID?
A. No protocol is used. The switch ID is always assigned manually.
B. The Dynamic Resource Allocation Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
C. The Switch ID Assignment Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
D. The switch ID is assigned based on the system ID of the device.
Q72. Which three statements about the virtual service domain on Cisco Nexus 1000V Switch are true? (Choose three.)
A. Any traffic coming or going out of the VSD must go through the service virtual machine.
B. The show virtualservice_domainname command displays the configurations for this VSD port profile.
C. Service virtual machine only snoops the data and is used for monitoring purposes.
D. A VSD is collection of interfaces that are guarded by the service virtual machine.
E. vMotion is supported for the service virtual machine and should not be disabled.
F. A virtual service domain (VSD) allows you to classify and separate traffic for network services.
Q73. Which three options are types of iSCSI node names? (Choose three.)
A. extended unique identifier
B. extended qualified name
C. iSCSI qualified name
D. network qualified name
E. iSCSI unique identifier
F. network address authority
Abreast of the times ccie dc 350-080:
Q74. Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of address-port translation is shown?
A. server NAT
B. dual NAT
C. port redirection
D. transparent mode
Q75. When building a NIC team (virtual port channel) between a host and a pair of Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches that will carry FCoE traffic, what is the maximum number of physical links that can exist in
Q76. Which three options describe the key management control parameters that Cisco Prime DCNM provides? (Choose three.)
A. configuration of change control
B. single shared database for LAN and SAN configuration data
C. single point for integration with third-party test tools
D. ability to manage vPCs
E. autodiscovery of storage controllers
F. host driver management
G. support for script automation
High value 350-080 dumps:
Q77. Refer to the exhibit.
The network topology that is shown in the exhibit has two aggregation switches (SW1 and SW2). The access layer switch connects to both aggregation switches. On SW1 and SW2, ports connecting to the access layer switches are configured as vPC member ports. SW1 and SW2 are also connected using a port channel that is configured as a vPC peer link. Which statement describes the use of the vPC peer-keepalive link in this topology?
A. The peer-keepalive link is used for synchronizing MAC addresses between Agg1 and Agg2.
B. The peer-keepalive link is used for control plane traffic. The peer link is used for the data plane.
C. The peer-keepalive link is used to resolve dual-active scenarios, where the peer link connectivity is lost.
D. The peer-keepalive link is used for the communication of orphaned ports.
Q78. Which three flow-control port states lead to enabled link flow control? (Choose three.)
A. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: Enabled
B. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: Desired
C. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: Disabled
D. Receive port: Disabled, Transmit port: Desired
E. Receive port: Desired, Transmit port: Desired
Q79. RAG DROP
Drag and drop the sequence of the steps on left for ISSU software upgrade of dual supervisor switches to achieve a nondisruptive upgrade on the right.
Q80. Which protocol message does the Cisco ACE module use to insert or withdraw all RHI routes?
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