156-215.80 Exam Questions and Answers 2019

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Product Description:
Exam Number/Code: 156-215.80
Exam name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator
n questions with full explanations
Certification: Certification
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Katie has been asked to do a backup on the Blue Security Gateway. Which command would accomplish this in the Gaia CLI?

  • A. Blue > add local backup
  • B. Expert&Blue#add local backing
  • C. Blue > set backup local
  • D. Blue > add backup local

Answer: D

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

  • A. Slow path
  • B. Firewall path
  • C. Medium path
  • D. Accelerated path

Answer: C

Where do you verify that UserDirectory is enabled?

  • A. Verify that Security Gateway > General Properties > Authentication > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked
  • B. Verify that Global Properties > Authentication > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked.
  • C. Verify that Security Gateway > General Properties > UserDirectory (LDAP) > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked.
  • D. Verify that Global Properties > UserDirectory (LDAP) > Use UserDirectory (LDAP) for Security Gateways is checked.

Answer: D

When using GAiA, it might be necessary to temporarily change the MAC address of the interface eth 0 to 00:0C:29:12:34:56. After restarting the network the old MAC address should be active. How do you configure this change?

  • A. As expert user, issue these commands:# IP link set eth0 down# IP link set eth0 addr 00:0C:29:12:34:56# IP link set eth0 up
  • B. Edit the file /etc/sysconfig/netconf.C and put the new MAC address in the field(conf:(conns:(conn:hwaddr (“00:0C:29:12:34:56”)
  • C. As expert user, issue the command:# IP link set eth0 addr 00:0C:29:12:34:56
  • D. Open the WebUI, select Network > Connections > eth0. Place the new MAC address in the field Physical Address, and press Apply to save the settings.

Answer: C

Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

  • A. Add rba user <User Name> roles <List>
  • B. Add rba user <User Name>
  • C. Add user <User Name> roles <List>
  • D. Add user <User Name>

Answer: A

Explanation: Configuring Roles - CLI (rba)
156-215.80 dumps exhibit

What are the three authentication methods for SIC?

  • A. Passwords, Users, and standards-based SSL for the creation of security channels
  • B. Certificates, standards-based SSL for the creation of secure channels, and 3DES or AES128 for encryption
  • C. Packet Filtering, certificates, and 3DES or AES128 for encryption
  • D. Certificates, Passwords, and Tokens

Answer: B

Explanation: Secure Internal Communication (SIC)
Secure Internal Communication (SIC) lets Check Point platforms and products authenticate with each other. The SIC procedure creates a trusted status between gateways, management servers and other Check Point components. SIC is required to install polices on gateways and to send logs between gateways and management servers.
These security measures make sure of the safety of SIC:
Certificates for authentication
Standards-based SSL for the creation of the secure channel
3DES for encryption

MyCorp has the following NAT rules. You need to disable the NAT function when Alpha-internal networks try to reach the Google DNS ( server.
What can you do in this case?

  • A. Use manual NAT rule to make an exception
  • B. Use the NAT settings in the Global Properties
  • C. Disable NAT inside the VPN community
  • D. Use network exception in the Alpha-internal network object

Answer: D

Fill in the blank: The R80 SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and _____ consolidate billions of logs and shows them as prioritized security events.

  • A. SmartMonitor
  • B. SmartView Web Application
  • C. SmartReporter
  • D. SmartTracker

Answer: B

Explanation: Event Analysis with SmartEvent
The SmartEvent Software Blade is a unified security event management and analysis solution that delivers real-time, graphical threat management information. SmartConsole, SmartView Web Application, and the SmartEvent GUI client consolidate billions of logs and show them as prioritized security events so you can immediately respond to security incidents, and do the necessary actions to prevent more attacks. You can customize the views to monitor the events that are most important to you. You can move from a high level view to detailed forensic analysis in a few clicks. With the free-text search and suggestions, you can quickly run data analysis and identify critical security events.

According to Check Point Best Practice, when adding a 3rd party gateway to a Check Point security solution what object SHOULD be added? A(n):

  • A. Interoperable Device
  • B. Network Node
  • C. Externally managed gateway
  • D. Gateway

Answer: A

Which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them?

  • A. Auditor
  • B. Read Only All
  • C. Super User
  • D. Full Access

Answer: B

Explanation: To create a new permission profile:
In SmartConsole, go to Manage & Settings > Permissions and Administrators > Permission Profiles.
Click New Profile.
The New Profile window opens.
Enter a unique name for the profile.
Select a profile type:
Read/Write All - Administrators can make changes
Auditor (Read Only All) - Administrators can see information but cannot make changes
Customized - Configure custom settings
Click OK.

What is Consolidation Policy?

  • A. The collective name of the Security Policy, Address Translation, and IPS Policies.
  • B. The specific Policy written in SmartDashboard to configure which log data is stored in the SmartReporter database.
  • C. The collective name of the logs generated by SmartReporter.
  • D. A global Policy used to share a common enforcement policy for multiple Security Gateways.

Answer: B

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

  • A. Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats
  • B. Proactively detects threats
  • C. Delivers file with original content
  • D. Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed

Answer: B

What are the three conflict resolution rules in the Threat Prevention Policy Layers?

  • A. Conflict on action, conflict on exception, and conflict on settings
  • B. Conflict on scope, conflict on settings, and conflict on exception
  • C. Conflict on settings, conflict on address, and conflict on exception
  • D. Conflict on action, conflict on destination, and conflict on settings

Answer: C

Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?

  • A. fw conn all
  • B. fw ctl pst pstat
  • C. show all connections
  • D. show connections

Answer: B

In R80, Unified Policy is a combination of

  • A. Access control policy, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy and endpoint policy.
  • B. Access control policy, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy and Threat Prevention Policy.
  • C. Firewall policy, address Translation and application and URL filtering, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy and Threat Prevention Policy.
  • D. Access control policy, QoS Policy, Desktop Security Policy and VPN policy.

Answer: D

Explanation: D is the best answer given the choices. Unified Policy
In R80 the Access Control policy unifies the policies of these pre-R80 Software Blades:
Firewall and VPN
Application Control and URL Filtering
Identity Awareness
Data Awareness
Mobile Access
Security Zones

Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track changes to the Rule Base?

  • A. WebUI
  • B. SmartView Tracker
  • C. SmartView Monitor
  • D. SmartReporter

Answer: B

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